Public Administration General Elective Mcqs Objectives BG 6th Sem Kashmir University

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6th-sem GENERIC ELECTIVE (GE)

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PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION

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OBJECVE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Literally the term ‘administration’ means———————

A. Manage the laws

B. Manage the trade

C. Manage the affairs of public or private

D. Education

2. Public administration is the sum total of all the activities undertaken in pursuit of and in
fulfilment of public policy, belongs to which view?

A. Managerial view

B. Integral view

C. POSDCORB view

D. Subject matter view

3. The human relations theory focussed on the

A. Physiological factors

B. biological factors

C. Social and psychological factors

D. Economic factors

4. The discipline of public administration originated in—-

A. U.K

B. U.S.A

C. Germany

D. India

5. Who was the originator of Politics-administration dichotomy?

A. Woodrow Wilson

B. W.F.Willoughby

C. .Mary Parker Follet

D. Henry Fayol

6. The ‘POSDCORB’ relates to the ————— of the public administration?

A. Scope

B. Meaning

C. Purpose

D. Philosophy

7. Which one of the following activities are not covered in ‘POSDCORB’?

A. Budgeting

B. Planning

C. Reporting

D. Discipline

8. New Public administration laid emphasis on ————

A. Economy and efficiency

B. Values and ethics

C. Behaviour of the public

D. None of the above

9. Scalar chain refers to:

A. All managers in a company

B. Chain of command

C. Chain of communication

D. Chain of managers from top to bottom linked stepwise

10. The name of Max Weber is associated with ——-

A. Bureaucratic theory

B. System theory

C. Human relations theory

D. Administrative theory

11. The primary focus of human relations theory is on:

A. Increasing labour productivity

B. Economic and efficiency

C. Individual as socio- psychological being and what motive him

D. None of the above

The

12. The organisation theory which highlights the social and psychological influences on
organisational behaviour is called:

A. human relations theory

B. system theory

C. bureaucratic theory

D. classical theory

13. Which of the following are required in organisation as a process?

A. division of work

B. grouping jobs and departments

C. establishing authority relationship

D. all the three

14. The history of evolution of the discipline of public administration is generally divided into:

A. four phases

B. three phases

C. six phases

D. five phases

15. The integral view of public administration is supported by:

A. L D. White

B. Dimock

C. Gladden

D. all the above

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16. The word “POSDCORB” was coined by:

A. J M. Pfiffner

B. Marshal Dimock

C. Luther Gullick

D. L D. White

17. Which of the following is the main point of difference between public administration and
private administration?

A. Profit motive

B. Public responsibility

C. Nature of functions

D. All the above

18. Which of the following statement is correct regarding the increasingly important role of
public administration in modern state?

A. The complexities of the modern industrial and urbanised world

B. It is a great instrument of social change

C. Concept of welfare state and total war

D. All the above

19. The term “development administration” was first coined by:

A. Fred W. Riggs

B. Edward W. Weidner

C. Goswami

D. Joseph la Palombra

20. Which of the following is a feature of Max Weber’s bureaucratic organisation?

A. A well-defined hierarchy

B. Division of labour based on functional specialisation

C. Office holder cannot appropriate his office

D. All the above.

21. Which of the following is required in organisation as a process

A. Division of work

B. Grouping jobs and departments

C. Establishing authority relationships

D. All the three above

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22. Which of the following is important in the organisational structure?

A. Well defined jobs

B. Coordination.

C. Clarifying authority and power

D. All the above.

23. Which of the following is not one of the principles of organisation?

A. Hierarchy or scalar principle

B. Staffing

C. Unity of command

D. Span of control

24. Public Administration may be defined as:

Administrative Capacity
Management of industry
Management of Property
Administration of Public

25. Which of the following is described as the ‘Soul of the Constitution’?

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Fundamental Duties

(d) Preamble

26. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on

(a) Philosophy of India

(b) ‘Objectives Resolution’ drafted & moved by Pandit Nehru

(d) Religious Concept

27. The term ‘We’ in Preamble means

(a) Indian Government

(b) Supreme Courts

(d) The People of India

28. Indian Constitution ensures ‘Justice’ in which of the following form

(a) Social

(b) Economic

(d) All of the above

29. Preamble has been amended by which Amendment Act?

(a) 27th Constitutional Amendment

(b) 42nd Constitutional Amendment

(d) 40th Constitutional Amendment

30. In which case, the Supreme Court specifically opined that Preamble is ‘not’ a part of the Constitution?

(a) Berubari Union case

(b) Kesavanada Bharati case

(d) None of the above

31. In which case, the Supreme Court rejected the earlier opinion and held that Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution?

(a) Berubari Union case

(b) Kesavanada Bharati case

(d) None of the above

32. The Preamble states that the Constitution derives its authority from

(a) Indian Culture

(b) Government of India

(d) Princely states

33. As per Preamble, date of adoption of the Constitution is

(a) 26th January 1950

(b) 26th November 1949

(d) None of the above

34. 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976) added which of the terms to the Preamble

(a) Socialist

(b) Secular

(d) Both (a) & (b)

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35. Which part of the Indian Constitution expressly declares that India is a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic?

(a) Fundamental Rights

(b) Directive Principles of State Policy

(d) Fundamental Duties

36. The founding father of theory of Bureaucracy was:

(a)Herman Finer

(b) La Palombra

(b) Max Weber

(d) Albert Lepawsky

37. Bureaucracy of Pakistan is:

(a) Elitist

(b) Agilitarian

(d) Paternalistic

38. The form of Leadership in the bureaucracy of Pakistan js:

(a) Aristocratic

(b) Democratic

(d) Paternalistic

39. The Ideal Model of bureaucracy is based on authority of:

(a) Tradition

(b) Charisma

(d) Money

40. Bureaucracy is based on:

(A) Traditional Authority

(B) Personal Authority

(D) Corporate Authority

(E) None of these

41. Which of the following is not of the core values of public administration?

(A) Equity

(B) Efficiency

(D) Bureaucracy

(E) None of these

42. Which of the following is one of the features of bureaucracy conceived by Max Weber?

(A) Authority

(B) Hierarchy

(D) Civil society

(E) None of these.

43. Bureaucracy is a form of:

(A) Political Organization.

(B) Social Organization

(D) Private organization

(E) None of these

44. Legal-rational authority” is a core concept of:

(A) Public Choice Theory

(B) Theory of Emergency

(D) Theory of Bureaucracy

45.The bureaucracy has certain characteristics that are:

a) It is hero or villain or form of social organization.

b) It has pathological tendencies.

c) It has a specialized structure of the nation.

d) It is indispensable in modern country.

46. Bureaucracy is seen as corruptible or otherwise:

a) Bureaucracy is essential and necessary evil.

b) Bureaucracy’s role as a pariah or savior.

c) Bureaucracy is suspected politically.

d) If bureaucracy fails, it is accused as pariah.

47. The bureaucracy has been defined as a system of administration characterized by expertness, impartiality and absence of humanity. who defined this.

(a) Charles Kannady

(b) Max-weber

(d) Peter M . Blau

48. What do u assess the status of bureaucracy under devolution plan-2000? whether they have become?

(a) Reformer.

(b) Pariah

(d) more nationalist

49. Bureaucracy refers to:

(a) Red tape

(b) The totality of government officials

(d) All of these

50.Eliminating government set restrictions or barriers is known as?

(a) Free trade

(b) Favourable trade

(d) Liberalisation

51. What does liberalisation aim at?

(a) Socialistic pattern of society

(b) Economic planning

(d) Land reforms

52. Price rigidity is the characteristic of which of the following?

(a) Monopoly

(b) Oligopoly

(d) Perfect competitive competition

53. ______ refers to the relaxation of produce government restriction usually in areas of social and economic policies:

(a) Privatisation

(b) Globalisation

(d) Liberalisation

54. “FDI” means:

(a) Forex direct investment

(b) Foreign deregulated investment

(d) Forex deregulated investment

55. “EFCG” stands for ______:

(a) Export Promotion capital goods

(b) Export Programmer for Credit Generation

(d) Export Promotion Consumer Goods.

56. EXIM policy was announced in the Year:

(a) 1990

(b) 1992

(d) 1998

57. The Foreign Trade Policy has ______

(a) identified certain thrust areas for growth

(b) started “served from India brand”

(d) all of above

58. Disinvestment means selling of public investment to a ______:

(a) Private enterprises

(b) Public enterprises

(d) Departmental enterprises

59. 100 percent privatization in India has taken place of:

(a) CMC limited

(b) Maruti Udyog limited

(d) VSNL

60. Cross Holding is a method of _____:

(a) Privatisation

(b) Globalisation

(d) Liberalisation

61. CIF stands for:

(a) Cost, insurance, freight

(b) Cost inclusive of freight

(d) Cost, interest, freight

62. Privatization can be achieved by:

(a) Leasing

(b) Franchising

(d) All of these

63. The position of the Indian President is :

(a) Like the American President

(b) Like the British Monarch

(d) Like the Prime Minister of China.

64. Japan has a parliamentary system with the head of the state as:

(a) Emperor

(b) President

(d) Commander-in-chief

65. In India, at the state level, the executive comprises of the chief minister, council of ministers and the

(a) President

(b) Prime Minister

(d) Governor

66. The longest tenure as the Prime Minister of India is enjoyed by

(a) Jawahar Lal Nehru

(b) Charan Singh

(d) Lal Bahadur Shastri

67. The Cabinet has a secretariat under a

(a) Senior Minister

(b) President

(d) Secretary General

68. Which of the following served the office of Vice President of India for two terms?

(a) Neelam Sanjeev Reddy

(b) Dr. Zakir Hussain

(d) Mohammad Hidayatullah

69. By impeachment who is removed:

(a) Prime Minister

(b) Speaker

(d) Governor

70. The Governor of a state is responsible for his acts to

(a) The State Legislative

(b) The Lok Sabha

(d) The Prime Minister

71. The President can be removed by:

(a) The Rajya Sabha

(b) The Lok Sabha

(d) Impeachment

72. The President of India can nominate to the Rajya Sabha

(a) 6 members

(b) 9 members

(d) 15 members

73. The Indian President may address either house of parliament under

(a) Article 73

(b) Article 80

(d) Article 90

74. Who acts as a link between Public and Government?

(a) Parliament

(b) Religious leaders

(d) Government officials.

75. The appellation Rajpramukh was omitted from the Indian constitution under the

(a) 4th Amendment Act, 1955

(b) 6th Amendment Act, 1956

(d) 10th Amendment Act, 1961

76. The electoral procedure of the Vice President of India is mentioned under article

(a) 56

(b) 60

(d) 66

77. Which among the following can be said to be a part of the Parliament of India?

1. President
2. Lok Sabha
3. Rajya Sabha
4. Governors of states

a) only 2 and 3
b) only 1,2, and 3
c) only 4
d) All of the above

78 Which among the following statements is/are true?

1. The maximum strength of Rajya Sabha is fixed at 278
2. In USA, the states are given proportional representation in the Senate according to their population
3. The American Senate has a fixed quota of 12 nominated senate members, just like India
4. Both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha can pass a motion of no-confidence against the government

a) Only 1 and 3
b) Only 3
c) Only 2 and 4
d) None

79. Which among the following statements is/are true?

1. Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha both follow the method of Proportional Representation for electing members
2. Rajya Sabha members are elected by the elected members of the state legislative assemblies
3. Maximum strength of Lok Sabha is fixed at 552
4. The voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 by the 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988.

a) Only 1 and 3
b) Only 2 and 3
c) Only 1,3, and 4
d) Only 2,3, and 4

80. What is the system consisting of courts which interpret the constitution and award judgement?
(a) Judiciary
(b) Parliament
(c) Police
(d) Legislative

81.What is the term used for money given to make amends for an injury or a loss?
(a) Donation
(b) Compensation
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

82.What is the act of breaking a law as well as to the breach or infringement of Fundamental Rights?
(a) Violation
(b) Acquit
(c) Dispute
(d) All of these

83.Judiciary in India resolves the disputes between
(a) State and State
(b) State and Citizen
(c) Citizen and Citizen
(d) All the above

84.Who is the final interpreter of our Constitution?
(a) Judiciary
(b) Government
(c) Executive
(b) Legislative

85.Once appointed, a judge can be removed by:
(a) District judge
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Prime Minister
(d) None of above

86.When was High Court under British Rule first established?
(a) In 1862
(b) In 1966
(c) In 1866
(d) In 1986

87.How many High Courts are there in India currently?
(a) 31
(b) 25
(c) 11
(d) 01

88.What type of cases are decided by under Civil Law?
(a) Divorce
(b) Rent matters
(c) Sale of land
(d) All the above

89. The removal of persons from land or homes that they are currently living in, is called
(a) violation
(b) eviction
(c) separation of power
(d) judiciary

90. How many judges are there in Supreme Court?
(a) 26 judges
(b) 36 judges
(c) 46 judges
(d) 16 judges

1. The Central Government’s exclusive powers are enumerated in the

(a) Concurrent List (b) State List

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2. Which of the following is regarded as an essential function of the State (Central Excise, 1994)

(a) To run schools for education

(b) To provide defence against external attacks

(d) To maintain good roads

3. In addition to the powers given in the Union and Concurrent List, the Union Government has the

(a) Residuary powers

(b) Federal powers

(d) None of these

4. Which of the following is true in respect to Centre State financial relations?

(a) Amount given by Centre is the only source of income to states.

(b) States can by-pass Center while taking foreign loans.

(d) States can claim 100% share in excise duty on goods produced in the State.

5. Which of the following taxes is levied by the State Government only?

(a) Entertainment Tax (b) Wealth Tax (c) Income Tax (d) Corporation Tax

6. Sarkaria Commission has been appointed by the Government of India tore port on (r.r.b.91)

(a) Centre – State relations (b) Electoral reforms (d) Inter – State conflicts (d) Tribal development

7. The State Government’s responsibility for educational planning is shared by the

(a) Ministry of Programme Implementation

(b) Ministry of Human Resource Development

(d) Ministry of Home Affairs

8. planning in India derive its objectives from

(a) Fundamental Rights (b) Directive Principles (c) Fundamental Duties (d) None of these

9. Which of the following features does not belong to a federal government? (Assistant’s Grade, 94)

(a) The government has two distinct levels. State Government and Central Government.

(b) State Governments are agents of the Central Government.

(d) Both Central and State Governments have co-ordinate status.

10. Which of the following taxes is exclusively and totally assigned to the Central Government by the Constitution? (CD.S. 1992)

(a) Estate Duty (b) Sales Tax

11. Which of the following subjects is included in the Union List?

(a) Gas and gas works (b) Marriage and divorce

12. The residuary powers mean the

(a) Powers shared between the Union and State Governments

(b) Powers related to country’s internal affairs

(d) Powers not included in any of the three Lists

13. under the Constitution, the residuary powers vest with the (Delhi Police, 1994)

(a) President (b) Supreme Court

14. Which of the following is not in the State List under the Constitution of India?

(a) Fisheries (b) Agriculture

15. The Centre State financial distribution takes place on the recommendation by the

(a) Finance Minister (b) Planning Commission

16. In normal times, the Union Parliament

(a) Can legislate on any item in the State List if the President so desires.

(b) Can legislate on any item in the State List if the Lok Sabha passes a resolution to that effect by (2/3rd) majority.

(d) Cannot legislate on any item in the State List

17. Grants in aid of revenue to the states is recommended by the (C.D.S. 1993)

(a) Inter State Council (b) Planning Commission

18. Railways is a subject on the (Teacher’s Exam, 1994)

(a) Concurrent list (b) Union list

19. Match the Lists:

A. Taxes on income other than agricultural income

B. Estate duty in respect of agricultural land

C. Inter planetary outer space travel

D. Acquisition and

20. Which of the following is in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of (I.A.S. 1993?)

(a) Population control and family planning

(b) Public health and sanitation

(d) Treasure trove

21. Which subject was transferred from State List to Concurrent List by the 42nd amendment of the Constitution?

(a) Agriculture (b) Education

22. Which of the following is contained in the Concurrent List?

(a) Forests (b) Education

23. ‘Grants-in-aid’ is provided to the states for (M.B.A. 1993)

(a) Improving the Centre-State relationship

(b) Reducing the regional imbalance

(d) Implementing various development programmes and rehabilitation

24. Who has the Constitutional authority to decide tax share of states?

(a) Finance Minister (b) Finance Commission

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25. The idea of incorporation of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution has been borrowed from the Constitution of

(a) Ireland (b) Britain

26. Government imposes taxes to (I. Tax, 1989)

(a) Run the machinery of the state

(b) Check accumulation of wealth among the rich

(d) None of these

27. The Sarkaria Commission dealing with the Centre state relationship has not laid down which of the following regarding the appointment of Governors?

(a) A politician from the ruling party at the Centre should not be appointed to a State run by some other party

(b) The person should not be too closely connected with the politics of the state where he is to be posted

(d) He should be eminent in some walk of life.

28. A law passed by a state on a concurrent subject gets precedence over the Central law if.

(a) It was passed earlier than the Central law

(b) It was passed by the State Legislature and approved by the President

(d) The majority of the State Legislature so decides

29. The State according to the Constitution includes the

(a) Executive (b) Legislature

30. The Indian Parliament can invade the State List if (I.E-S. 1994)

I. A subject in the State List assumes National importance

II. A proclamation of emergency has been issued by the President of India

III. The Supreme Court of India authorizes the Parliament to do so Which of the following are correct?

(a) II and III (b) 1 and II

31. ‘Social Security and Social Insurance’ is a subject included in the

(a) Concurrent List (b) Residuary powers

32. Lotteries organized by the government of a state come under (Indian Forest Service 1993)

(a) Union List

(b) State List

(d) No list mentioned in the Seventh Schedule

33. Which of the following taxes is exclusively and totally assigned to the Central Government by the Constitution? (C.D.S. 1992)

(a) Estate Duty

(b) Sales Tax

34. Various types of taxes are collected by the Central Government which are also to be shared with State Governments. Who has the constitutional authority to decide tax share of states?

(a) Finance Minister (b) Finance Commission (c) Planning Commission (d) Union Cabinet

35. In India both direct and indirect taxes are levied by the Central and State Governments. Which of the following is levied by the State Governments? (Railway Apprentice’s Exam, 1993)

(a) Excise duty on liquour (b) Capital gains tax (c) Customs duty (d) Corporation Tax

36. In which respect have the Centre State relations been specifically termed as ‘municipal relations’? (I.A.S. 1994)

(a) Centre’s control of the State in the legislative sphere

(b) Centre’s control of the State in financial matters

(d) Centre’s control of the State in planning process

37. Lotteries organized by the Government of a state come under (I.K.S. 1993)

(a) The Union List

(b) The State List

(d) No list mentioned in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India.

38. The largest contribution to the total combined annual tax revenue of the Centre, States and Union Territories in India is made by

(a) Sales tax (b) Income & Corporation Tax

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39. The Zonal Councils discuss matters relating to

(a) Inter State transport

(b) Border disputes

(d) All the above matters

40. The Inter State Council has been set up under

(a) An 263 (b) Art 283 (c) Art 292 (d) Art 352

41. The President can assign any of the functions of the Union Government to the State Government

(a) In his discretion

(b) In consultation with the Chief Justice of India

(d) In consultation with the State Governor

42. The provisions regarding division of taxes between Union and the States

(a) Can be suspended during National Emergency

(b) Can be suspended during Financial Emergency

(d) Cannot be suspended under any circumstances

43. Corporation tax (I.A.S. 1995)

(a) Is levied by the Union and collected and appropriated by the states.

(b) Is levied by the Union and belongs to it exclusively.

(d) Is levied by the Union and shared by the Union and the states.

44. The Central Government can give directions to the State Governments with regard to subjects in

(a) The Unionist (b) The State List

45. The jurisdiction of the Finance Commission does not extend to

(a) Recommendation of the distribution between the Union and the States of the net proceeds of taxes.

(b) Recommendation of the allocation to the states of the respective shares of such tax proceeds.

(d) Recommendation of the principles which govern the Grants in aid of the revenue of the states out of the Consolidated Fund of India.

46. What can the President do if the states fail to comply with the Directives of Central Government?

(a) He can dissolve State Legislature and order fresh elections.

(b) He can send reserve police to the State to secure compliance.

(c) He can declare the breakdown of constitutional machinery in the state and assume responsibility for the governance of the State.

(d) Any of the above

47. The Parliament can make a law on a subject in the State List when

1. A proclamation of emergency is in force.

2. Two or more states make a request to the Parliament to make a law on a subject.

3. Rajya Sabha passes a resolution that such subjects have acquired national importance,

(a) 1 only (c) 1 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (d) 1,2 and 3

48. Education which was originally a State Subject was transferred to the Concurrent List by which of the following amendments?

(a) 24th (b) 42nd

49. As regards finances, the Constitution has

(a) Left the distribution to Finance Commission,

(b) Made a distribution favourable to the Centre.

(d) Made an equitable distribution between Centre and Slates.

50. Agricultural income tax is assigned to the State governments by

(a) The Constitution of India

(b) The National Development Council

(d) The Inter State Council

41. (c) 42. (c) 43. (b) 44. (d) 45. (c) 46. (c) 47. (d) 48. (d) 49. (b) 50. (a)

1.The term ‘coalition’ is derived from the Latin word coalition which means

a. To merge

b. to support

c. to grow together

d. to complement

2. Coalition governments continue to be

a. Stable

b. undemocratic

c. unstable

d. None of these

3. In coalition government the bureaucracy becomes

a. Efficient

b. all powerful

c. fair and just

d. None of these

4. The emergence of political parties has accompanied with

a. Grow of parliament as an institution

b. Diversification of political systems

c. Growth of modern electorate

d. All of the above

5. Party is under stood as a ‘doctrine by

a. Guid-socialism

b. Anarchism

c. Marxism

d. Liberalism

6. Political parties are responsible for maintaining a continuous connection between

a. People and the government

b. President and the Prime Minister

c. people and the opposition

d. Both (a) and (c)

7. The first All India Women’s Organization was formed in

a. 1918

b. 1917

c.1916

d. 1919

8. Bureaucracy that is committed to the programmes of the political party in power is called—

(A) Depoliticised bureaucrac

(B) Semi-politicised bureaucracy

(D) Fully politicised bureaucracy

Ans : (C)

9. The principle of ‘span of control’ means—

(A) An employee should receive orders from one superior only
(B) The number of subordinate employees that an administrator can effectively direc

(D) The number of people being controlled

Ans : (B)

10. Which of the following is not a function of staff agency ?

(A) Planning

(B) Advising

(D) Achieving goals

Ans : (D)

11. Which of the following is not a staff agency in India?

(A) Cabinet Secretariat

(B) Cabinet Committees

(D) Economic Affairs Department

Ans : (D)

12. In hierarchy, the term ‘scalar’ means—

(A) Step

(B) Ladder

(D) Process

Ans : (B)

13. The 4Ps theory of departmentalization as advocated by Luther Gulick are—

(A) Purpose, process, plan, place

(B) Place, person, programme, process

(D) Purpose, process, person, place

Ans : (D)

14. One who tells one’s supervisor anything detrimental to an associate is called—

(A) A squealer

(B) A rate buster

(D) None of these

Ans : (A)

15. According to Urwick, where the work is of a more simple and routine nature, the span of control varies from—

(A) 9 to 1

(B) 8 to 12

(D) 10 to 12

Ans : (B)

16. Delegation of authority by a Sales Manger to his salesman is an example of—

(A) Upward delegation

(B) Sideward delegation

(D) None of these

Ans : (C)

17. A virtual organisation is—

(A) One which has profit as the major goal

(B) One in which leadership always tends to fulfil psychological needs of the subordinates

(D) One which has concern of the employees as its top priority
Ans : (C)

18. The most effective means of citizen’s control over administration is—

(A) Election

(B) Pressure Groups

(D) Public Opinion

Ans : (A)

19. The Santhanam Committee on prevention of corruption was appointed in—

(A) 1961

(B) 1964

(D) 1962

Ans : (D)

20. The first country in the world to introduce the right to information was—

(A) Norway

(B) USA

(D) Finland

Ans : (C)

21. What is meant by the Doctrine of State Immunity?

(A) The State is immune to being sued

(B) The State can be sued but not in the national courts

Ans : (A)

22. ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally means—

(A) To have the body of

(B) To command

(D) None of the above

Ans : (A)

23. The system of ‘Rule of Law’ was propounded by—

(A) A. V. Dicey

(B) Lowell

(D) H. Finer

Ans : (A)

24. Who says that “Power corrupts and absolute power corrupts absolutely” ?

(A) L. D. White

(B) Lord Beveridge

(D) Josiah Stamp

Ans : (C)

25. The Public Accounts Committee of Parliament in India consists of—

(A) 15 members

(B) 22 members

(D) 30 members

Ans : (B)

26. If a public servant imposes upon the citizens duties and obligations which are not required by law, it
can lead to—

(A) Error of law

(B) Abuse of power

(D) Error of fact finding

Ans : (B)

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27. Of which of the following administrative systems is the absence of judicial review a feature ?

1. USA

2. UK

3. France

4. India

(A) 3

(B) 2 and 3

(D) 2

Ans : (B)

28. The present constitution of the USA was adopted in—

(A) 1786

(B) 1778

(D) 1789

Ans : (C)

29. ‘Grand Corps’ in French Civil Service stands for—

(A) Senior level of specialist administrators

(B) Senior level of generalist administrators

(D) Senior level of defence administrators

Ans : (C)

30. In France, the term of the President is—
(A) Four years

(B) Five years

(D) Seven years

Ans : (D)

31. In England, the Cabinet must resign from office as soon as it loses the confidence of—

(A) The King or the Queen

(B) The House of Commons

(D) All of these

Ans : (B)

32. Under their service rules, the British Civil servants—

(A) Are required to be neutral in politics

(B) Can be partisan

(D) Can pursue active party politics

Ans : (A)

33. The main sources of corruption are

A. Sampling and quantizing effects

B. Channel effects

C. Sampling, quantizing and channel effects

D. None of the mentioned

Answer: C

34. The distortion in quantization is called as

A. Round off error

B. Truncation error

C. Round off & Truncation error

D. None of the mentioned

Answer: C

35. In quantization process, the amount of quantization noise is _______________ to number of levels.

A. Directly proportional

B. Inversely proportional

C. Independent

D. None of the mentioned

Answer: B

36. Saturation noises can be avoided or reduced by
A. Automatic gain control

B. Amplifying

C. Filtering

D. None of the mentioned

Answer: A

37. Timing jitter can be reduced by

A. Good power supply isolation

B. Stable clock reference

C. Good power supply isolation & Stable clock reference

D. None of the mentioned

Answer: C

38. The reasons for the threshold effect are

A. Thermal noise

B. Interference from other users

C. Interference from circuit switching transients

D. All of the mentioned

Answer: D

39. When channel bandwidth is greater than the pulse bandwidth, it causes

A. Intersignal interference

B. Intersymbol interference

C. Bandwidth error

D. None of the mentioned

Answer: b

40. The _____________ corresponds to average quantization noise power.

A. Mean

B. Variance

C. Probability density function

D. None of the mentioned

Answer: B

41. Signal to noise ratio increases as ___________ increases.

A. Quantization level

B. Square of quantization leve

C. Square root of quantization level

D. None of the mentioned

Answer: B

42. Signal to noise ratio is infinite when

A. Quantization noise is zero

B. Number of levels are infinite

C. Quantization noise is zero & Number of levels are infinite
D. None of the mentioned

Answer: C

43. The ratio of average signal power and quantization noise is

A. 3L2

B. L2/3

C. 2L3

D. L3/2

Answer: A

44. What are the causes of corruption?

A. Economic insecurity

B. High rate of income tax

C. System of democracy

D. All of the above

45._____ provides scope for organised crime.

A. Corruption

B. Unemployment

C. Violence

D. Terrorism

1. The year in which first minnow brook conference was held
a. 1968

b. 1969

c. 1967

d. 1960

Answer:
a. 1968

2. The four Ps of Development administrations developed by Donald Stones excludes:
a. Plans

b. Projects

c. Programmes

d. Priorities.

Answer:
d. Priorities.

3. The thinker who connects third world administration with development administration
a. F.W Riggs.

b. Henry Fayol.

c. Woodrow Wilson.

d. Montgomery.

Answer:
a. F.W Riggs.

4. Who commented development administration as “administration is planned change”
a. Pai Panadikar

b. Eisenstaedt.

c. Hahn Been lee.

d. Harry J. Friedman.

Answer:
a. Pai Panadikar

5. C.A.G in the history of development administration denotes.
a. Comparative Administration Group

b. Comptroller and auditor General

c. Companied Approach towards Governance

d. Centre for Advanced Governance.

Answer:
b. Comptroller and auditor General

6. The Prismatic model is developed by.
a. John Gunnel.

b. F.W Riggs.

c. J.N Khosala.

d. F.W Tyler.

Answer:
b. F.W Riggs.

7. The book Wealth of Nations was written by
a. Adam Smith.

b. H.J Laski.

c. Lionel Robinson.

d. David Ricardo.

Answer:
a. Adam Smith.

8. Who identified Capitalism with “The system of natural liberty”
a. David Ricardo.

b. Lionel Robins.

c. Adam Smith.

d. Malthus.

Answer:
a. David Ricardo.

9. Belief in Market is the main assumption ………….. model of development.
a. Capitalism.

b. Fabian socialism.

c. Marxisim.

d. Mixed Economy.

Answer:
a. Capitalism.

10. “Tragedy of commons” means
a. Underdevelopment of people.

b. A thing which owns nobody cannot be protected.

c. Common people are exempted from development.

d. None of the above.

Answer:
b. A thing which owns nobody cannot be protected.

11. New Deal Progrmme is associated with
a. Marshall

b. Roosvelt

c. Lincoln

d. Mao

Answer:
b. Roosvelt

12. Odd one out
a. Change Orientation

b. Client Orientation

c. Goal orientation

d. Hierarchy orientation.

Answer:
b. Client Orientation

13. IRDP
a. Integrated Rural Development Programme

b. International Rural Development Project

c. Indian Root to Development Programme

d. None of these.

Answer:
a. Integrated Rural Development Programme

14. Ecology of Administration means
a. Administration of environment

b. Law for the protection of environment

c. Social setting to which administration relates

d. Structure of Administration.

Answer:
c. Social setting to which administration relates

15. Administration Lag means
a. Gap between Development need and administration response

b. Red tapism

c. Gap between departments

d. Inconsistency in democratic governance.

Answer:
a. Gap between Development need and administration response

16. The Great Depression relates to
a. World economic crisis during 1930s

b. Unemployment among youth.

c. South North Divide

d. Growing inequality between rich and poor

Answer:
a. World economic crisis during 1930s

17. Development in socialism doesn’t mean
a. Equal distribution of resources

b. Egalitarianism

c. Competition.

d. Common ownership of resources.

Answer:
d. Common ownership of resources.

18. Capitalist model of development relates to
a. Co-operative model of development

b. Individual development

c. Equality of all.

d. None of these.

Answer:
b. Individual development

19. Mixed Economy means
a. Fluctuating economy.

b. Mixer of Capitalism and socialism.

c. A book written by Nehru

d. Indian approach to Capitalism.

Answer:
b. Mixer of Capitalism and socialism.

20. Public Sector denotes
a. Individual enterprise for people

b. Government controlled firms.

c. Communication facilities

d. Industries.

Answer:
b. Government controlled firms.

21. Market Mechanism is a feature of.
a. Mixed economy.

b. Capitalism.

c. Socialism.

d. Marxism.

Answer:
b. Capitalism.

22. Licensing system in a mixed economy means
a. Issue of licence by the government.

b. Control over production and distribution of resources

c. Routine work of administrators.

d. None of the above.

Answer:
b. Control over production and distribution of resources

23. Indian economy before 1990 was known for its style of functioning as a
a. Socialist economy.

b. Planned economy.

c. Mixed economy.

d. Capitalist economy.

Answer:
c. Mixed economy.

24. The pillar of economic development for Mahatma Gandhi was
a. Grama Swaraj

b. Trusteeship

c. Decentralisation

d. Sarvidaya.

Answer:
a. Grama Swaraj

25. “Tryst with Destiny” is associated with
a. Sardar Patel

b. Jawaharlal Nehru.

c. M.N Roy.

d. M.K.Gandhi.

Answer:
b. Jawaharlal Nehru.

26. The state in India having dual chambered legislature
a. Kerala

b. Tamil Nadu

c. Bihar

d. Gujarat

Answer:
c. Bihar

27. 69th Constitutional amendment relates to
a. NCT Delhi.

b. Reduced voting age to 18.

c. Election commission of India.

d. Elections to the president of India.

Answer:
a. NCT Delhi.

28. The Seventh Schedule of Indian constitution deals with
a. Names and list of states.

b. Amendment Procedure of Indian constitution

c. Division of Power between states and the union government

d. Panchayati Raj.

Answer:
c. Division of Power between states and the union government

29. Which of the following is an extra constitutional body?
a. Election commission of India.

b. Planning commission of India.

c. CAG

d. Commission for minorities.

Answer:
b. Planning commission of India.

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30. NDC came in to being on…
a. August 6, 1952.

b. August 15 1951.

c. August 30 1952.

d. August 16 1952.

Answer:
a. August 6, 1952.

31. The amendment which state planning boards mandatory.
a. 73rd constitutional amendment

b. 61st amendment

c. 42nd amendment

d. None of these.

Answer:
a. 73rd constitutional amendment

32. “Plan space Kerala” relates to
a. A virtual space to monitor planning

b. A project deals with planning implementation

c. Space for five year planning

d. A pilot study group to assess planning and implementation

Answer:
a. A virtual space to monitor planning

33. The amendment which gives constitutional status to Panchayati raj.
a. 73rd Constitutional Amendment.

b. 74th constitutional amendment.

c. 61st Amendment.

d. 40th Amendment.

Answer:
a. 73rd Constitutional Amendment.

34. The planning commission of India has been assigned ….number of functions
a. Eight

b. Not assigned

c. Seven

d. Depends on the decisions of the parliament.

Answer:
a. Eight

35. Panchayati Raj institutions in India enjoys delegated powers.
a. Agree

b. Disagree

c. Strongly agree

d. No comments.

Answer:
b. Disagree

36. The Prime Minister who appointed first Administrative reform commission was
a. Lal Krishna Advani

b. Lal Bahadhoor Sastri.

c. Indira Gandhi.

d. Morarji desai

Answer:
b. Lal Bahadhoor Sastri.

37. The Chairman of First Administrative Reforms commission.
a. Venkidachellaya

b. Fasal Ali

c. Hanumanthaya

d. None of these.

Answer:
c. Hanumanthaya

38. The Prime Minister who appointed a national commission for the review of Indian Constitution was;
a. Indira Gandhi

b. Rajiv Gandhi

c. A B Vajpai.

d. Manmohan Singh.

Answer:
c. A B Vajpai.

39. Higher Level, Middle level and Lower Level constraints on bureaucracy was devised by
a. E.H Valson

b. Ferrel Heady

c. Gladden

d. V.O Key

Answer:
a. E.H Valson

40. The Ministry of Food and Agriculture was started in the year
a. 1963

b. 1964

c. 1965

d. 1966

Answer:
a. 1963

41. The District Magistrate is officially known as
a. Sessions Judge

b. District Collector

c. Deputy Collector

d. Sessions Judge II

Answer:
d. Sessions Judge II

42. I.A.S stands for
a. Indian Administrative Service

b. Indo-American Service

c. Indian Accounts Service.

d. None of these.

Answer:
a. Indian Administrative Service

43. The Five Year plans launched in India in
a. 1950

b. 1951

c. 1965

d. 1947

Answer:
b. 1951

44. The Stages of Economic Growth was written by
a. W.W Rostow

b. G B Shaw

c. Kuznets

d. Adam Smith.

Answer:
a. W.W Rostow

45. NBAP stands for
a. National Bank for Area Projects

b. National Bio-diversity Action Plan

c. Nabard and Andra Pradesh

d. None of these.

Answer:
b. National Bio-diversity Action Plan

46. MGNREGA stands for
a. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

b. National Rural Integration Progremme.

c. A project under UN

d. None of these.

Answer:
a. Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act.

47. India 2020 was the book of
a. Sashi Tharoor.

b. A P J Abdul Kalam

c. Vandana Shiva

d. Medha Patkar.

Answer:
b. A P J Abdul Kalam

48. Theory of Class Struggle was expounded by
a. Engels

b. Karl Marx

c. Mao

d. Hegel

Answer:
b. Karl Marx

49. The Union list consists of
a. 100 subjects

b. 66 subjects

c. 44 subjects

d. 96 subjects

Answer:
a. 100 subjects

50. Administrative division in Indian constitutions is materialised through
a. Seventh Schedule

b. Eighth Schedule

c. Ninth Schedule

d. First Schedule.

Answer:
c. Ninth Schedule

51. Chairman of Planning Commission of India
a. President of India

b. Prime Minister of India

c. Vice President of India

d. Home Minister.

Answer:
b. Prime Minister of India

52. The counter part of president of India in states
a. Chief Justice of High Court

b. Governor

c. Chief Minister

d. Home Minister of State.

Answer:
b. Governor

53. HDI means
a. Human Development Item

b. Human Development Index

c. Housing Development Bank of India

d. None of the above.

Answer:
b. Human Development Index

54. Agenda 21 relates to
a. Minnobrok conference.

b. Rio Summit

c. Manifesto for election

d. Panchayati Raj

Answer:
b. Rio Summit

55. The Right to Information Act was passed in the year
a. 2006

b. 2005

c. 2004

d. 2000

Answer:
b. 2005

56. Prismatic model is the contribution of
a. F. W Tyler

b. Drawit Waldo.

c. F.W Riggs

d. Luther Gullick

Answer:
c. F.W Riggs

57. The Great depression was an economic phenomena took place during
a. 1940s

b. 1950s

c. 1930s

d. 2010s.

Answer:
c. 1930s

58. Competition is a feature of ……………economy.
a. Socialist Economy

b. Marxism

c. Gandhism

d. Capitalism.

Answer:
d. Capitalism.

59. For Gandhi…………… is the pillar of Economic Development.
a. Non violence

b. Satyagraha

c. Grama Swaraj

d. Villages.

Answer:
c. Grama Swaraj

60. The lower house of Indian Parliament is
a. Rajya Sabha

b. Legislative Assembly

c. Lok Sabha

d. Council of states.

Answer:
c. Lok Sabha

61. 69th Constitutional Amendment deals with
a. Creation of new states

b. National Capital Territory (Delhi)

c. Invocation of state law

d. Declaration of state emergency.

Answer:
b. National Capital Territory (Delhi)

62. Sevottam associated with
a. Ombdusman

b. Lok Ayukta

c. Grievances Redress Cell

d. Supreme Court.

Answer:
c. Grievances Redress Cell

63. In India Omudsman is known as
a. Sessions Judge

b. Municif Judge

c. Lok Ayukta

d. Lok Pal

Answer:
c. Lok Ayukta

64. Ecology of Administration means
a. Environment and administration

b. Social system in which administration is taking place

c. Structure of administration

d. Goal of administration.

Answer:
b. Social system in which administration is taking place

65. Green House Gases means
a. Gases which can be used in the construction of Green Houses

b. Gases which destroys Ozone layer

c. Gases which is prohibited

d. None of these.

Answer:
b. Gases which destroys Ozone layer

66. Public – Administration dichotomy means
a. Politics- Administration dichotomy

b. People-Administration divide

c. Policy-Administration divide

d. None of these.

Answer:
a. Politics- Administration dichotomy

67. Governors of states can be recalled at any time; is an example for
a. Spoil System

b. Merit System

c. Electoral system

d. Nominated system.

Answer:
a. Spoil System

68. New Public Administration is an example for
a. Welfare orientation

b. Client orientation

c. Descriptive orientation

d. Neutral orientation.

Answer:
b. Client orientation

69. Development Administration is
a. Change Oriented

b. Hierarchical

c. Centralism

d. Bureaucratic.

Answer:
a. Change Oriented

70. The book Politics and Administration is written by
a. Woodraw Wilson

b. Herbert Simon

c. Frank J Goodnow.

d. L D White

Answer:
c. Frank J Goodnow.

71. Introduction to the Study of Public Administration is written by
a. Luther Gullik

b. L.D White

c. Herbert Simon

d. F.W Taylor.

Answer:
b. L.D White

72. DPC stands for
a. District Planning Committee

b. District Planning Commission

c. District Policing Centre.

d. District Planning Centre.

Answer:
a. District Planning Committee

73. 74th Constitutional Amendment deals with
a. Panchayati Raj institutions

b. Nagarapalika

c. Amendment procedure

d. Directive Principles of state policy.

Answer:
b. Nagarapalika

74. The Annual Financial Statement means
a. Income and expenditure statement

b. Term for budget in Indian constitution

c. Appropriation bill

d. Finance bill

Answer:
b. Term for budget in Indian constitution

75. Mixed Economy means
a. Mixed form of production and distribution

b. Co existence of Public sector and Public sector

c. Economies of third world

d. Emerging economies.

Answer:
b. Co existence of Public sector and Public sector

76. Public Administration deals with
a. Administration of affairs.

b. Management of affairs of people

c. Popular sovereignty

d. None of these.

Answer:
b. Management of affairs of people

77. Committee stage in the passing of bill falls in
a. First Reading

b. Second Reading

c. Third Reading.

d. After Third Reading.

Answer:
b. Second Reading

78. National Development Council comprises of
a. All Governors of states

b. All Chief Ministers of states

c. All Central ministers

d. Central Cabinet ministers only.

Answer:
b. All Chief Ministers of states

79. The Directive Principles of State Policy is
a. Ideals to be followed by state while making laws

b. Justifiable rights of states.

c. Compulsory add-ons to establishment of fundamental rights

d. In part III of Indian constitution

Answer:
a. Ideals to be followed by state while making laws

80. Economic rights of Indian citizen is visualised in
a. Fundamental rights

b. DPSP

c. Article 32

d. Schedule VI

Answer:
b. DPSP

81. District collector is selected on
a. Prerogative of ruling party

b. Spoil system

c. Patronage system

d. Merit system.

Answer:
d. Merit system.

82. The extra constitutional body who is authorised to make assessment of national wealth is
a. Finance Commission

b. Comptroller and auditor General

c. Planning Commission

d. National Development Council.

Answer:
c. Planning Commission

83. “By public Administration is meant in common usage the activities of the executive branches of the National, State and Local Governments”: commented by-
a. L D White

b. Nigro and Nigro

c. W. Waldo

d. H. Simon

Answer:
d. H. Simon

84. The book Principles of Organisation is written by
a. Mooney and Reiley

b. M.P Follet

c. W.F. Willoughby

d. Luther H. Gulick.

Answer:
a. Mooney and Reiley

85. The “CO” in the acrimonious word POSDCORB stands for
a. Co-operation

b. Company

c. Co-ordination

d. Compilation

Answer:
c. Co-ordination

86. The Western Electrical Company is associated with..
a. Scientific Management.

b. Hawthrone Studies.

c. Behaviouralism

d. Ecology of Administration

Answer:
b. Hawthrone Studies.

87. The essay “The Science of Public Administration” is a contribution of
a. Almond and Powell

b. Robert Dahl

c. Herbert Simon

d. Luther Gullik

Answer:
b. Robert Dahl

88. “agraria-transitia-industria”is associated with
a. Martin Shubuk

b. Talcot Parson

c. F.W Riggs.

d. Marrion Levy.

Answer:
c. F.W Riggs.

89. Development administration “refers to the process of guiding an organization toward the achievement of progressive political, economic and social objectives that are authoritatively determined in one manner or another”. Commented by
a. Weidner

b. F.X. Sutton

c. Charles Lindblom

d. Talcott Parsons

Answer:
a. Weidner

90. The branch of Public administration system which directs socio-economic and political change in the society.
a. Personnel administration

b. Development Administration

c. O & M

d. Financial Administration.

Answer:
b. Development Administration

91. Administrative Staff College is located at
a. Shimla

b. Hyderabad

c. Kolkatta

d. Thrivananthapuram

Answer:
b. Hyderabad

92. “Minnow brook Perspective” was edited by
a. Frank Marini

b. Dwight Waldo

c. Campbell

d. F.X. Sutton

Answer:
a. Frank Marini

93. “A theory of public administration means in our time a theory of politics also.” Remarked by
a. John Merriman Gaus

b. Fritz Morstein Marx

c. Chester Bernard

d. Paul Appleby

Answer:
b. Fritz Morstein Marx

94. Administrative Platonists is associated with
a. Campbell

b. Paul Appleby

c. F.X. Sutton

d. Frank J Goodnow.

Answer:
b. Paul Appleby

95. Elections to the local self governments are conducted by
a. State Governments

b. Election Commission of India

c. State Election Commission

d. Collector of respective Districts.

Answer:
c. State Election Commission

96. Prime minister of India is ………………… by the President of India
a. Nominated

b. Selected

c. Appointed

d. Suggested

Answer:
c. Appointed

97. India is ………………. State
a. Federal

b. Unitary

c. Quasi federal

d. Union of

Answer:
d. Union of

98. Development Administration has an orientation towards
a. Administration in Developed nations

b. Third world countries

c. Administrative development

d. Internal administration.

Answer:
b. Third world countries

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Public Administration General Elective Mcqs Objectives BG 6th Sem Kashmir University

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